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Can God Make a Rock So Big He Can't Move It?

Just stumbled over this one again -- it's an old question, but it trips a lot of people up, so I thought I'd mention it and (hopefully) clarify the problem here for anyone who was interested.

The question goes like this:

Can God make a rock so big he can't lift it? If he can't lift it, then he's not omnipotent. But if he can't make such a rock, then he's also not omnipotent. Therefore, an omnipotent God can't exist.

That question is similar to this next question...

What happens when the irresistable force meets the immovable object?

... with God playing the role of the "irresistable force".

What's the answer?

The answer to both questions is: The question itself is in error, so no answer is needed or even possible. Contradictory questions are meaningless.

Look at the second, simpler form of the question.

When we say there is an "irresistable force", we mean that we have a universe which contains a force, and no objects in that universe which can resist it. Then, when we also say we have an "immovable object", we mean we have a universe which contains an object which can resist all forces in the same universe.

Obviously, the two universes are mutually contradictory. It is not sensible to define a universe which contains an object which resists all forces, and a force which moves all objects.

Put another way: An "irresistable force" means no objects can resist it. But an "immovable object" means some there is object which can resist it. So there cannot both BE and NOT BE an object which can resist that force. The question has two assumptions which contradict each other. Such questions have no meaning.

This is as meaningful as asking: "Assume John has a pet duck. Also assume John has no pet ducks. Given that both are true, how much must he spend on Duck Chow?" It's a meaningless question, so there can equally be no meaningful answer.


Update: Sigh. I can see from the comments section that I'm not getting through here. Folks, the question is meaningless. It's self-contradictory, so no true answer is possible. Re-read the previous paragraph for another example of such a question.


Update 2: Based on a comment from "Clear", saying this was a clearer explanation, I'm excerpting this from a comment I make below:

In philosophy, since language can sustain error, we can talk of things which cannot exist. We could speak of, for example, shapeless cubes or colorless hues. As with the question above, these are self-contradictory concepts, so, if we value logic, we should discard them as representing anything real or meaningful.

[The question's] definition of omnipotence is certainly a self-contradictory one, as it would including having the power to have no powers.

But when Christians use the same word, they are not coming from the same definition you're offering. Omnipotence means "having all powers", and this has been historically understood as "having all powers which can be had, doing all things which can be done." The JudeoChristian God is a (philosophically) limited God, in the sense that God is limited to only have powers which can really be had, doing things which can really be done, and having states which can actually be had.

To show this is nothing new, here's the bible, on God's "limits" (a few selected verses from many):

God is not a man, that he should lie, nor a son of man, that he should change his mind. (Numbers 23:19) If we are faithless, he will remain faithful, for he cannot deny himself. (2 Timothy 2:13)

In the history of Christian thought, term "omnipotence" was used to reflect that characterization, not the other way around.

The downside to believing in a God with logical limits is that people ask silly questions like these. But the upside is that we are talking about a God who is consistent with reason, who is limited to only doing possible things.

The final irony here is that the people who use this as a "logical" counter-argument to God's existence are actually discarding logic, since they are violating the foundational rule of reason -- the excluded middle, and embracing irrationality.

Comments

Sorry. I very crude statement, but there is no God.

If there were then I would have no choice but to be a believer, and I'm not.

You follow?

Would I have a choice but to believe if He were omnipresent? I've done okay for myself in my life. Never deliberately hurt anyone, never had any bad accidents, always treated people kindly and have nice friends as a result.

Your journey is individual.

I guess I'm biassed by American "God" programmes with those ridiculous fake preachers who are taking cash and sleeping with their secretaries.

Corruption is everywhere. Perhaps there was a God but he's just moved on?

Posted by: Ian on June 8, 2005 06:39 PM

The answer to this question is simple -- Yes, he can. If a person insists on explanation, simply say "yes, he can create a rock he can't lift, and yes, he can lift that rock". And if they finally start blabbering "no, he can't because how can he if blah blah, otherwise, blah blah", they've already ruined their own "short question/try to catch you offguard" approach. And in this case, you can already explain to them that the question makes no more sense than the answer you give them. SIMPLE! ;-)

Posted by: Clever on June 9, 2005 07:40 AM

Ian, I recommend you read up on some basic laws of logic and the fallacy of circular reasoning, because you just gave everyone a perfect example.

God doesn't exist because you don't believe in him, and you don't believe in him because he doesn't exist.

Not to mention the fact that in order for you to catagorically make the statement that there is no God, you would have to possess one of the attributes commonly attributed to the Diety Himself, namely omniscience. In order to deny even the possibility of the exitance of God, you would have to know every possible piece of evidene supporting his existance, and know precisly how to debunk every bit of that evidence. This simply isn't possible for human beings, so if you want to argue from a logically safe position, I would argue as an agnostic.

Posted by: on June 9, 2005 08:45 AM

Can He? Yes. Would He? I don't know. God's actions have purpose, so the real question is "Why would God make a rock so big that He couldn't move it?"

I understand that the question at hand is a question of logic...but my two cents are still valad.

Posted by: Samantha Atkins on June 9, 2005 12:32 PM

Good question Imran, and one I've struggled with for years, and have been troubled at God about it, at times.

I am a Christian because I actually believe it's true, not because it suits my tastes. If I could create my own religion, and expected the universe to magically change to match, the religion I'd design certainly wouldn't include that belief.

Hell itself, and the possibilty of going there, is required when you have a just God, an afterlife, and free will. Remove any of those, and there's no need for hell. The short way of saying this is: "What, you want Hitler to go to heaven?"

But this still leaves the question: why so many?

The Christian answer to this is that in the beginning, man and God got along fine. (See interesting evidence here, and here in more detail.) At that point, the "evil one" approached a representative of the first humans and offered a deal, which was accepted, and which made the world be much more evil than it should have been, in the same way a father can do things which will mess up his own family, and even generations to come.

Jesus addressed this question, when he said:

Jesus told them another parable: "The kingdom of heaven is like a man who sowed good seed in his field. But while everyone was sleeping, his enemy came and sowed weeds among the wheat, and went away. When the wheat sprouted and formed heads, then the weeds also appeared.

"The owner's servants came to him and said, 'Sir, didn't you sow good seed in your field? Where then did the weeds come from?'

"'An enemy did this,' he replied.

"The servants asked him, 'Do you want us to go and pull them up?'

"'No,' he answered, 'because while you are pulling the weeds, you may root up the wheat with them. Let both grow together until the harvest. At that time I will tell the harvesters: First collect the weeds and tie them in bundles to be burned; then gather the wheat and bring it into my barn.'" (Matthew 13:24-29)

In the story, the farmer didn't sow the field in order to raise weeds; but he's not the only actor in the universe. Likewise, God's goal in creating mankind wasn't to send people to hell, to be estranged from God.

No: instead, the bible teaches that God is a loving God; Jesus taught that God was a loving father who wants to give good gifts to his children, and seeks children who will freely chose to love him too.

A basic part of love is generosity, and desiring what is best for others. A good, loving God, alone before the start of the universe, would be required, by this very nature to create objects upon whom to manifest that love. And that is our purpose: To learn to know and love God, and to help others do the same.

Jesus explains that desirable "wheat" are the "sons of the kingdom", those who take advantage of the offer Jesus gave, which would allow us to stop being mere "slaves" or "servants" of God, and actually be adopted as God's "children" and friends, as Jesus promised -- a free offer, open to all.

Jesus also explained that the "weeds" are those who are not interesting in knowing, loving, and being with God. Since God is Himself good -- and the source of everything good -- these people are basicly given what they want. And being away from Goodness himself means being in a very bad place.

Things often appear rather bleak in this present age, but the bible hints there will be many interesting and good things happening in the future. It may be that when all is said and done, including future ages, there may be far, far more in heaven, with only a very small fraction in hell.

Finally, it may be that hell is not forever. I personally wouldn't bank on it, but there are some arguments to the contrary, including that the greek words for these may refer to a time whose end is not yet in sight, which might me something less long than eternity. But again, given Jesus's offer, and God's great kindness, why even find out?

Posted by: Tim (Random Observations) on June 10, 2005 02:25 AM

Paul:

I suspect that a lot of Christians are going to be quite surprised, come Judgement Day, at what a varied cross-section of the population it turns out Jesus died for...

Speaking of being suprised: Paul, Christians believe that Jesus died for everyone, not a mere "cross-section of the population":

For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish... (John 3:16)

But that doesn't mean everyone necessarily will avail themselves of that offer. Indeed, Jesus himself taught that only a relatively few people would be interested in that offer:

But small is the gate and narrow the road that leads to life, and only a few find it. (Matt 7:14)

You seem to be confusing God's love -- which is for everyone -- with our deciding to say "yes" to that love and put God in charge -- which Jesus said only a minority would do.


LyricalReckoner:

Simple logic tells us that God is neither all powerful (there are things it cannot accomplish) nor all wise.

No, a guy posting a comment with no explanation claims that. If "simple logic" showed us that, atheists would already have a disproof of the Christian God's existence. Instead, they are still arguing about whether such a proof is merely even possible.

For instance, we can prove there are things God cannot know. Mathematics provides many examples.

I'd be most impressed if you could provide one.

If you're referring to Godel's incompleteness theorem, I believe you are misunderstanding it. All Godel shows is that you can't prove all true things by starting with a given set of assumptions. (A proof, by the way, which roundly refuted much 20th-century materialism.)

God is depicted as one who knows all facts in the universe, not one who starts with a given set of assumptions and tries to "prove" all facts from that.

Posted by: Tim (Random Observations) on June 27, 2005 02:42 AM

It's certainly true that by equating the two scenarios, I was indeed implying that God was defined as being omnipotent. That is indeed the context in which the question is typically asked.

And, as you've pointed out, it's probably not even worth asking concerning a non-omnipotent God, as, at it's core, it's an attempt to prove the concept of "omnipotence" is inherantly meaningless. Such a tactic would be completely useless to employ against some object (e.g. "Can Bob make a rock...") which wasn't generally thought to have the property of omnipotence.


But when you say things like: "This is fallacious because your premise [an omnipotent God] assumes the result that the question is trying to prove," it sounds like you're not even paying attention.

Where did I say I was attempting to prove God was omnipotent? I'm demonstrating -- in case you missed it -- that the question at hand (in the title) is inherantly meaningless.


Again, if the presence of the word "God" in the question causes your brain to shut down, then try it out on the sample question. Imagine I said:

"Assume John has a pet duck. Also assume John has no pet ducks. Given that both are true, how much must he spend on Duck Chow?" It's a meaningless question, so there can equally be no meaningful answer.

And someone responded: "This assumes that ducks eat -- which is the result that the question is trying to prove." No, I'm trying to prove the question is meaningless. And it is, whether or not ducks actually eat, or whether or not John actually exists, or whether he is actually capable of feeding ducks, or owning them, or whatever.


Next, although (as was just shown) this is entirely beside the point, you're wrong in asserting you could build a house but not move it. Houses are moved all the time -- both as a unit, and by disassembly and reassembly. If nothing else, you could plant an explosive nearby, which would set off ground waves which would indeed move the house. I doubt you could build a house for which this would not be true.


Finally, (and more importantly) you're even wrong about what you think the original question ("Can God make a rock...") is supposed to prove. You seem to think the question is an attempt to prove God is omnipotent. (huh????) In fact, it's usually offered to prove God can't exist. So you've even apparently botched that part of your case.

Posted by: Tim (Random Observations) on July 5, 2005 05:01 PM

by making the analogy between this question and the question of an immovable object/irresistable force you state that the queston is flawed in that an infinite force is not possible. This is correct and is scientifically provable, but in your anaogy "god's" omnipotence is represented by infiniteness of the force which you crrectly say desn't exist, so god's omnipotence is equally fallaceuos

Posted by: ben emmett on July 6, 2005 04:56 PM

I kicked myself in the face...

Please don't! Besides being painful, and much too harsh given the rather minor error, I can't even imagine how you arranged this.


Does omnipotence by definition require the ability to move anything? Yes! So, can any omnipotent force create something it cannot move? No, by the very definition of omnipotence. It's a self-contradicting concept...

It seems clear that omnipotence, as you define it, is self-contraditory and meaningless. So yes, I'll readily grant that.

In philosophy, since language can sustain error, we can talk of things which cannot exist. We could speak of, for example, shapeless cubes or colorless hues. As with the question above, these are self-contradictory concepts, so, if we value logic, we should discard them as representing anything real or meaningful.

Likewise, your definition of omnipotence is certainly a self-contradictory one, as it would including having the power to have no powers.

But when Christians use the same word, they are not coming from the same definition you're offering. Omnipotence means "having all powers", and this has been historically understood as "having all powers which can be had, doing all things which can be done." The JudeoChristian God is a (philosophically) limited God, in the sense that God is limited to only have powers which can really be had, doing things which can really be done, and having states which can actually be had.

To show this is nothing new, here's the bible, on God's "limits" (a few selected verses from many):

God is not a man, that he should lie, nor a son of man, that he should change his mind. (Numbers 23:19) If we are faithless, he will remain faithful, for he cannot deny himself. (2 Timothy 2:13)

In the history of Christian thought, term "omnipotence" was used to reflect that characterization, not the other way around.

Wikipedia:

God is able to do everything that is in accord with his own nature. He has no external power exerted on him, and is the source and origin of all power. The nature of God includes logic, and thus God cannot do anything which is logically absurd. God is able to alter the laws of physics since they are not part of his nature (strictly speaking, though they may be reflective of it), they are only a means to an end.

In short, that's a long way of saying that the Christian God is not presumed to be irrational, illogical nor self-contradictory.

Your definition of omnipotence, however, is irrational, since you are defining a term which cannot possibly correspond to any real object. I don't tend to do that, as there's no point in attempting to define or deal with self-contradictory properties or objects, since such cannot possibly map to any real concept or object.


It's a self-contradicting concept... Do you see the circular logic at play here?

No, I do not see circular logic at play here, but I do see someone who tends to. Circular reasoning is a very different concept from self-contradiction. They're only similar in that they're two forms of logical fallacy.


By the way, by "moving" the house I meant using my own force, and not external devices

So you meant "move" to mean without any assistive devices, but then you clearly meant "make" (as in build a house) as meaning with assistive devices?

Gosh, that's an easy game to stack against yourself. Using such rules, I can easily argue the following sentence is true: "I can reposition a rock I can't move!"

Yes, because by "reposition", I mean WITH the help of my friend Joe, but by "move" I meant WITHOUT the help of my friend Joe. We can always "win" (or so we will think, at least) a debate by introducing subtle odditities in how we define our terms.

Posted by: Tim (Random Observations) on July 6, 2005 04:58 PM

ben emmett,

by making the analogy between this question and the question of an immovable object/irresistable force you state that the queston is flawed in that an infinite force is not possible.

No, it says nothing of the sort. Please go re-read it. It says that an irresistable force cannot coexist in the same universe as an immovable object. That tells us nothing whatsoever about whether an irresistable force, or immovable object could exist without the other.

If you think that was a proof of what you're saying, you really need to take a few steps back and learn the basic rules of logic.

The rest is just your own assumption and religious belief, apparently. Nothing wrong with having religious beliefs, but we should be able to recognize them when we are stating them.


This is correct and is scientifically provable...

All claims of scientific proof should be accompanied by an explanation. For example, which field of science showed this? Biology? Chemistry? Physics? Which experiment? Was that experiment definitive?

But, as I said, I think you're just stating your own religious beliefs and calling them "science" because it makes you feel good. Such people, my experience seems to say, don't actually know much about science at all, but worship it as some kind of distant, unknown god.

By the way, science proves everything I have ever said is correct, and that everything you have ever said or thought was false.

Wasn't that fun? Anyone can just say such things.


...but in your anaogy "god's" omnipotence is represented by infiniteness of the force which you crrectly say desn't exist, so god's omnipotence is equally fallaceuos

You're completely out to lunch here. You're not even characterizing the article above correctly. I don't "correctly say" any of the things you think, and I've never spoken about an "infinite force". (I don't even know what such a concept might mean.) You're scoring a zero on reading comprehension. Get at least that much correct before you attempt to share the rest of your enlightened worldview with us, okay?

Posted by: Tim (Random Observations) on July 6, 2005 05:24 PM

where to begin...
I find it fascinating that the introduction of the word “God” to any subject can completely change the tenor of the subject being discussed. Perhaps this is evidence of God’s ability to change all things… I digress.

While I grant that much of this discussion is simply an argument of semantics I do find it irresistibly stimulating. For instance, using “simple logic” as explained, (or perhaps better to say completely unexplained) by LyricalReckoner to define something like God, which is in no way simple. If you are using logic to explain God, then perhaps you should use a more complex logic and have the courtesy to explain said logic for the rest of us simpletons.
This is not limited to the Christian God, but any of the God’s created by mankind throughout the ages. None of them was ever meant to be understood, and most often were created to explain that which could not be explained logically, or scientifically. For example early man had no idea what precipitation was so what does he do? Create a rain god, or two, or ten…whatever. Problem solved. Logical? No. The concepts of logic and science are also attempts by a creature with limited ability trying to explain the limitless. That’s like using the definition of a straight line to define a cloud. Use your logic to define Picasso or DeVinci or Britney Spears. That’s why we have art… (Britney being the exception, I offer no explanation for that phenomenon), again, I digress.
This also indicates the inherent need for man to appeal to a higher power. Why, if there is no god whatsoever, does man constantly create these powerful transcendent creatures to honor and appeal to? Some of us choose the Judeo Christian God, but there are others who choose logic or science, which often times leaves you with just as many, if not more, unanswered questions. How does logic address concepts like perfectly flawed? If it is perfect, can it be flawed? If it is flawed can it be perfect? Can logic or science define emotion? If so I would love to hear it.
At some point, be it Christianity, Insanity, Sean Hannity, or frilly laced panty, you must step out on faith, because, believe it or not, some things just can’t be explained. As for me and my household, we shall serve the Lord.

Posted by: CJ on July 14, 2005 01:54 PM

Can God microwave a burrito so hot that even HE can't eat it?

--The Simpsons

Posted by: Lloydakis on July 15, 2005 06:18 PM

The most important fallacy of the intelligent design argument is the randomness-alone concept. As if every organism on the planet was always assembled randomly from scratch every time. No. The system has "memory" of sorts. It only works from one tiny success on and forgets all mistakes. Suppose our one tiny success propagates itself so we have 10 critters. Suppose one makes a fatal mistake and disintegrates. Fine. Suppose one makes an mistake which is an improvement. Now you have 8 original and 1 new improved version (let's say it propagates itself twice as much in the same time period). If nothing else happens, in the next generation you get 80 original, and 20 new and improved; the next generation after that you get 800 and 400, and the next generation after that you get 8000 and 8000 and so on. But previously we had a 20% “error” rate. So put that into the system (10% disintegration, 10% twice as productive as before) and see what happens. You do the math. Basically the critters "remember" the successful plan - by being more or less a copy of their parent(s) and only have to make one little improvement to be a roaring success. (In the real world, the plan was carried first on the RNA (which could have been as simple as 2 molecules joined*, which would bind to a particular amino acid)
and then in one improvement, on the DNA). Now multiply the population size (or half, if you assume they've discovered the advantages of sexual reproduction) by the lifespan of the critters and how long they've been around. That's a huge number, every one an opportunity for for and “error” which might be an improvement. The only “intelligence” that is required for evolution is the system “memory” of being a fairly accurate copy of your parent(s).

*(of any of these: adenine, guanine, cytosine, or uracil; actual codons are 3 molecules long, but the third position is still wobbly and the first two do not hook up to their respective amino acids in a random fashion)

I also find it interesting that I have never heard anyone, anywhere, in this kind of discussion actually mention Darwin's four principles, which if true, mean evolution not only can, but must happen – as a mathematical certainty. See above. I defy anyone to refute them (I would quote, but have to go instead on memory):
1) Individual variation exists [as genetic mutations and [hot off the presses!!: as genes permanently modified due to environmental causes (see Anway et al. 2005 article in Science)
2) It is heritable [both kinds, if they occur in germ-line cells (sperm and eggs)]
3) Populations are capable of excess reproduction
4) The "fitter" organisms survive. [these days we say they tend to reproduce more than others]

Whereas, the concept of intelligent design is just a façade for creationism. I listened to the Bible Answer Man for a long time trying to get to the “evidence” for this.
It amounts to only three tenets, of which the first two are blatantly bogus and the third is circular.
1) Evolution is cruel and capricious. [Is it cruel that some critters are dinner for others? (now you’ll explain it use it as part of “God’s plan”); doesn’t that make God cruel?, or the other favorite explanation, that only humans (read free adult white male) feel pain in any meaningful way. As for capricious… have you never had or known someone who had any kind of freak accident or totally undeserved bad luck? (Ah, you say, God is testing us and it only appears to be capricious); well why doesn’t he treat everyone the same, then? Otherwise, that meets the definition of capricious in my book.]
2) It’s racist. [Just because scripture can be twisted to imply one group is “better” than another has no bearing on the reality that some organisms reproduce more than others, or that this ability in itself is even “better” in the long term, leading as it may to overpopulation, starvation, and possible extinction.]
3) Because the Bible [and therefore creationism] is literally true, then Adam was a real man, who really fell from grace, therefore God as a real man (Jesus) had to really atone for it. If Adam wasn’t real but we all came from apes, then there’s no need for Jesus to save us either, and there goes “the Capstone of Christianity”. [Well, maybe we have a selfish animal nature by way of being animals, and this story is one way we can let God admit complicity in this for having made us this way, and let us all get on with our lives. The whole forbidden fruit story would be like the parent who gives the toddler a cookie then says ‘Don’t eat that, or I’ll be mad’, then when the kid eats it anyway he gets spanked-not once, but for eternity. Doesn’t the punishment outweigh the crime, and who’s really to blame here anyway? And if this is the extent of your belief in the teachings of Jesus, I’d say it’s pretty shallow.]

Posted by: humble seeker on July 30, 2005 04:32 PM

RE: God's inability to make a perfect circle with four sides does not dimish God's possession of all powers because that is not a power that can exist.

That's one way to express it. Here's another: there are things that even God can't do.

Omnipotence is pretty senseless, once you think about it. It's certainly nothing for a well-educated person to believe in.

Posted by: on August 16, 2005 10:59 AM

The answer to the "rock" question is a simple NO. God CANNOT make a rock so big he can't lift it, BECAUSE the question is a contradiction. So quit your belly-aching.

Posted by: All_Wise_Man on August 18, 2005 03:16 PM

And behold, the Lord passed by, and a great and strong wind rent the mountains, and broke in pieces the rocks before the Lord, but the Lord was not in the wind; and after the wind an earthquake, but the Lord was not in the earthquake.
And after the earthquake a fire, but the Lord was not in the fire.

And after the fire a still small voice.

And when Elijah heard it, he wrapped his face in his mantle and went out and stood at the entrance of the cave.

1 Kgs 19:9a, 11-13a

So what does it mean for an omnipresent God to not be in the wind or the earthquake?

Our language is ultimatly imperfect, like a map is imperfect. But it is useful like a map is useful, as an imperfect but grasp-able representation of somthing greater and more detailed and nuanced than we can ever hope to comprehend.

We verbalize God using metaphore or contrast, because our language compares and contrasts. We can verbalize black only in contrast to white, and happy in contrast to sad. Re: Tim's explanation, we can describe God in contrast to an adversary. But that assumes a certain amount of dualism; God vs. the Devil, God vs. Free Will, God vs. Random Chaos etc. We can only verbalize God to the degree that we can verbalize what the contrast to God is.

Our language is still just a map. What does it matter if we can express inconsistencies in formal logic, if those inconsistancies have no meaning in the real world?

They're like pictures by Escher with staircases that ascend in circles forever and can never be built in real life.

Posted by: on August 21, 2005 11:26 PM

RE: What does it matter if we can express inconsistencies in formal logic, if those inconsistancies have no meaning in the real world?

Look . . . I can make something so heavy that I can't lift it. Can God do as much?

The question (can God make a rock so heavy it can't lift it) isn't illogical. The notion that there's a god that can do whatever it likes is illogical.

Posted by: on August 28, 2005 10:56 AM

James13When tempted, no one should say, "God is tempting me." For God cannot be tempted by evil, nor does he tempt anyone;

Titus 1:2
in the hope of eternal life, which God, who cannot lie, promised long ages ago,

Two things God canot do simply because will not do them!

Posted by: cumileo on August 29, 2005 01:31 AM

Oh and God cant fit into less than a size "infinity"

Posted by: cumileo on August 29, 2005 01:36 AM

>>RE: What does it matter if we can express inconsistencies in formal logic, if those inconsistancies have no meaning in the real world?

Look . . . I can make something so heavy that I can't lift it. Can God do as much?

The question (can God make a rock so heavy it can't lift it) isn't illogical. The notion that there's a god that can do whatever it likes is illogical.

I don't know why my name got removed from my earlier comment. I must have hit the wrong button.

The question of whether God can make a rock so heavy that he cannot lift it is simply a matter of words. Unless those words can be mapped clearly to somthing that we can comprehend, the question is meaningless.

What would an infinite amount of mass look like?
What would an infinitely powerful force look like?
How do you measure or define the ability of God or of Gods? People can't really answer any of these questions. Not with anything approaching precision.


If you ask questions using terms that you don't clearly understand, you'll get an answer that you don't understand. Garbage in, garbage out, with computers and formal logic which is what I was saying.

It's like asking what happens when you divide by zero, or asking whether 1 divided by zero is more or less than 2 divided by zero.

Math is just a concept. If your concepts don't map to the real world in some way, they're meaningless.

"Infinity" is somthing that doesn't easily map to the observable universe in most cases. Questions involving both formal logic and infinity tend to be meaningless, more often than not.

Posted by: Ryan on August 30, 2005 10:00 PM


Q:
Can God make a rock so big he can't lift it? If he can't lift it, then he's not omnipotent. But if he can't make such a rock, then he's also not omnipotent. Therefore, an omnipotent God can't exist.


My answer is:
Can God make a rock so big he can't lift it?
Yes He can.

Yes, AFTER He made it, He's not omniponent anymore.

Posted by: gv on September 3, 2005 10:40 PM

im trying to write an essay on this and your answers confuse me....im honestly starting to think this is the dumbest question ever made

Posted by: matt on September 27, 2005 09:22 AM

Humble seeker said, two months before I stumbled onto this page:

"Basically the critters "remember" the successful plan - by being more or less a copy of their parent(s) and only have to make one little improvement to be a roaring success."

A typical biological system works only when *all* the parts are present and working correctly, but doesn't work if any part is missing or malfunctioning. If such a system develops by adding a part at a time, then during most of the process the species incurs an ever-increasing cost of carrying the accumulating components without getting any benefit from them. It will be at a disadvantage compared to those that didn't set out on the path of trying to develop the feature in the first place, and it can be expected to lose out to them.

Actually it gets worse. The closer the species gets to having a completely working new biological system, the more likely that the parts it does have will hurt it. Think of all the diseases we have that consist of one component being missing in one of our biosynthesis systems. Instead of making a useful substance, the incomplete system makes, with great efficiency, an intermediate product that in itself is useless and builds up to toxic levels.

Mr./Ms. Seeker continues:

"(In the real world, the plan was carried first on the RNA (which could have been as simple as 2 molecules joined*, which would bind to a particular amino acid)
and then in one improvement, on the DNA). [...] *(of any of these: adenine, guanine, cytosine, or uracil; actual codons are 3 molecules long, but the third position is still wobbly and the first two do not hook up to their respective amino acids in a random fashion)"

The genetic code doesn't work that way either.

A chain of three messenger RNA bases (say, AAA) has no specific physical affinity for its corresponding amino acid (say, phenylalanine).

What makes each element the genetic code work is the simultaneous presence, for each amino acid, of
(1) a transfer RNA molecule, whose shape associates a certain sequence of three bases with a certain set of projections and side loops; and
(2) an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase, a protein molecule whose shape matches, on the one hand, the projections and side loops on the transfer RNA and, on the other hand, the amino acid molecule.

The shapes of the protein and the RNA are determined by their sequences. In order for the system to exist for the first time, for each amino acid there has to be both the information for a tRNA *and* the information necessary to make a working corresponding synthetase *given* the shape of the tRNA. For the system to work, the synthetase information must exist in the form of a protein sequence. For the system to reproduce for the first time, the synthetase information must *also* exist, *independently*, in the form of an RNA sequence. If it existed only as a protein sequence, it couldn't reproduce; if it existed only as an RNA sequence, it couldn't be translated into the protein necessary to make the translation work at all.

Posted by: Hieronymus on September 27, 2005 12:26 PM

Lets start at the beginning. Has anyone here ever seen God make a rock?

Is it possible that an 'omnipotent' God is just another way of saying 'you don't need one god for love and one for war and one for travel and one for..." and consolodating citystates into a single nation under a single law code?

Posted by: Ryan on October 7, 2005 10:49 PM

OMNIPOTENCE MEANS FOR THE LORD THAT HE CAN DO ALL THINGS CONSISTENT WITH HIS NATURE. ONE OF THE ATTRIBUTES OF THE LORD IS IMMUTABILITY, WHICH MEANS THAT HIS NATURE DOES NOT CHANGE. THUS HE CANNOT STOP BEING GOD BY CREATING SOMETHING NOT SUBJECT TO HIS POWER OR BY CREATING SOMETHING WHICH WOULD MAKE HIM NO LONGER OMNIPOTENT.

Posted by: ENOCH on November 8, 2005 10:39 PM

"If I have ice cream, and don't have ice cream, what flavor is it?"

Choose one;

a. If you got it at Baskin Robins, it is one of 31 flavors.

b. This question is self contradictory. It inherantly cannot be answered.

c. I like Vanilla!

d. Are you that Quantum Physicist guy with a cat in a box which is both dead and alive at the same time?

e. It was either Thomas Acquinas or St. Augustine who wrote an eloquent disertation on this very subject, however he used flavors of jam, refrigeration not yet having been invented.

f. If God wanted you to both have and not have Ice Cream, you would. He can do anything.

Posted by: Ryan on November 25, 2005 03:40 PM

It is correct that the question "Can God make a stone so big he can't lift it?" implies a contradiction. But, the point of that contradiction is a Reductio Ad Absurdum, in which we conclude that the original assumption, that God exists, must necessarily be false.

YOU miss the point in claiming the question has no answer and, so, no answer need be given. The fact that it has no answer entails that God does not exist.

Take Logic 101 over again. This is very basic stuff.

Posted by: MacaroniGuy on December 7, 2005 11:38 PM

MacaroniGuy,

It is indeed very basic stuff, and you've botched it completely. Which is kinda funny, given your comment!

The question is expanded like this...

Postulate:
1. A force which can move anything exists
2. An object which cannot be moved by any force exists.

You might as well just expand it as:
1. I have ice cream.
2. I have no ice cream.

(That was an "ice cream koan"! Yuk! :-))

It is indeed like a reductio ad absurdum, except without any "reductio" going on, since it's already composed of two mutually contradictory lemmas (assumptions).

So yes, the correct thing you do when you reach a set of contradictory statements (in this case, before transform one) is to reject the collection of assertions -- which would mean rejecting any question which contains both assertions as contradictory, hence inconsistent.

Which is why I reject the question as meaningless.

Duh!

But the part you are missing here, Einstein, is to show that both parts of the question necessarily follow from "God exists", as you have just implied they do. Sadly, they don't, unless you're into circular reasoning.

But you could assume them, if you'd like, by defining whatever kind of God you'd like to reason about. So if YOU choose to assume this definition of "God":

"If God exists, THEN he must be able to have both properties -- of making rocks that can't be moved, and also of having the power to move everything..."

... then, yes, then by "proof by negation", that specific God would not, indeed, exist.

But, once again, for those who weren't paying attention:

The JudeoChristian God is not such a God.

Again, please note the verses above where I show that the JudeoChristian God does not claim to be able to do logically exclusive things, as the particular god you hypothesize does. The JudeoChristian God explicitly states that he cannot contradict Himself, which makes him an entirely different entity, with different properties, than the god you just assumed and refuted.

And since you're refuting the wrong god, your argument is simply an example of another fallacy, one called "straw man argument", whereby you wrongly define your opponent's position in order to make it easier to refute.

Hey, but thanks for playing!

I think that enrollment's still open for ya... ;-)

Posted by: Tim (Random Observations) on December 8, 2005 12:59 AM

I was discussing with a classmate the other day about the existence of God. He made fun of me for using the word "transcendent," claiming I had no idea what it meant. When I explained it to him, God inevitably came up. I said, "God is God. So he can do anyhting he wants." And he replied, "So God can do absolutely anything?" Before I even answered I realized he would use the "immovable rock" arument. I really had no response for him, and I was literally saved by the bell as he left before i tried to offer an explanation. I was i n over my head. This will help me greatly. Thank you.

Posted by: ErnestLee SeaKing on March 23, 2006 03:48 PM

i really like the question asked about whether GOD can make a rock which is too heavy for HU to lift. well the answer is simple.
yes, GOD can !!
does it mean that proves that GOD is powerless???
No!!
its posible by GOD to fail to do somehting if GOD wills it. so GOD can ither win or lose according to GOD's wish. this shows omnipotence.
GOD being bale to do such a thing dosent mean GOD is after all limited...but it further stresses GOD's omnipotence.
furthermore, GOD isnt limited in our time and space and dimensional rules that if HU fails to do soemthing (by HU's will) that there wont simultaneously be a chance for GOD to succeed in lifting that rock. GOD can win and fail at the same time...cuz the only thing left after GOD fails is GOD HUSELF.
man cant win and lose at the same time cuz man is limited where ALLAH is unlimited.so i dot think philosophy students shudnt atart to celebrate thinking that this question poses a threat to the viability of the major religions because the logic and reason and the principles so employed in carrying out thought processes to get conclusions are themselcves limited.
so its like trying to see the empire state building through a peephole.
there ya go, suckers.
and ALLAH mentions in a place in the Quran ALLAH being hurt by mans actions. it means , since ALLAH is all powerful, ALLAH can share our pain if ALLAH so wills. nothing to it really.

Posted by: on June 3, 2006 11:41 AM

with all due respect, it is folly to try and cram the concept of GOD into man's limited spere of rationality. truth is, there is a thin line between the rational and so called irrational and further at some point there is no line at all. we live in a limited environment and clearly it has imparted a sort of effect on iour way of thinking, hence we use terms such as rational and irrational.
dont u think that its arrogance to label wat u understand as rational and acceptable and just ignore tht which u dont? one cant understand GOD with such a state of mind.
plus if GOD was trapped and 'rational' and all we wudnt worship such a god would we?
sufi or not lol, fact is GOD is beyond understanding and transcendent.
and lets not forget what the great shakespeare once wrote, "there are more things in heaven and earth than in your philosophy, horatio" lol

Posted by: on June 5, 2006 06:44 AM

essentially, lure's right. the guy's thinking multidimensionally.

Posted by: on June 6, 2006 01:34 PM

A logical being, such as God the Creator will never do anything illogical.

It's as simple as that.

Posted by: on September 12, 2006 02:07 PM

What the ---- is wrong with all you retards? I'm stupider from reading this page! Other than Tim and LR all the comments on this page lack any intelligence at all. Sounds like 2 teachers debating with their grade 3 class.

Posted by: No one special on September 15, 2006 08:14 AM

Various responses...


Steve Johnston:

Your answers are too complex and don't capture the majestic simplicity of God.

The point of my answer is not to "capture" the "majestic simplicity" of anything -- God or otherwise. I'm simply noting a lower bound on a theistic conception of God. (And I don't see what's so complex about saying God is not self-contradictory.)

Many people prattle on about things which are "beyond reason" or "higher than categories". What they really mean are things that are below reason, illogical and contradictory.

The problem does not lie in the question of God's existence, it lies in our finite inability to grasp his infinite capability.

You're confusing two ideas: whether we can fully "grasp" God (we cannot), or whether "he" can have any attributes at all (he can indeed).

For example, let's say God is infinite and exists. We can understand "exists". (After all, we "exist", we understand that concept pretty well.) But we can't fully understand "infinite", since we have no experience of infinities. My inability to fully appreciate one attribute (say, infinity) doesn't negate my ability to appeciate another (say, existence).

Likewise, we can all hopefully grasp the idea of two statements which do NOT contradict each other. I suggest that understanding that which exists -- including any possible idea of god -- should begin at that mininal level. Sure, we'll never get the whole picture. But that's no excuse for failing to understand even the basics.

God, if he exists, has attributes. The proof is that if we say he has no attributes, we are still asserting he has an attribute (that of having no attributes) and are thus contradicting ourselves. In this life, you must choose between reason and irrationality. If we choose reason, we necessarily also mean that we exclude self-contradicting statements.

If you embrace irrational thinking you're not "exceeding" reason, you're simply a nut -- and a self-contradictory one at that, since you inevitably spend a lot of your life still pretending to "reason" about other things.


Anonymous:

dont u think that its arrogance to label wat u understand as rational and acceptable and just ignore tht which u dont? one cant understand GOD with such a state of mind.
plus if GOD was trapped and 'rational' and all we wudnt worship such a god would we?
sufi or not lol, fact is GOD is beyond understanding and transcendent.

You say it is "arrogant" because, at the core, you believe we simply made God up as a form of self-flattery. Personally, I don't buy that: the God I found was not at all, in many ways, the god I would have preferred. And the bible is hardly flattering to human character.

Atheists are fond of making pronouncements like: "Belief in Christianity and God is irrational." But the simple truth is Christianity (and Judaism) are rational beliefs (they believe a rational mind is behind existence) and thus were the exception to historical world religions.

For example consider Taoism:

The Tao is conceived as a supernatural essence, an underlying mystical force or princple governing life, but one that is impersonal, remote... and definitely not a being... According to Lao-tzu, the Tao is "always nonexistent" yet "always existent," "unnamable" and "the name that cannot be named." ... One might meditate forever on such an essence, but it offers little to reason about. (Stark, The Victory of Reason, pp. 5-6)

Chinese elite atheists didn't embrace reason. They embraced a Taoist or Buddhist conception of the universe, both which were anthetical to modern rationality and science. Thus China, even though its civilization had once been far more advanced than Europe's, never developed science. Instead, the Europeans found the Chinese living in poverty and squalor, without clocks, guns, eyeglasses, astronmy, printing presses, etc.

In contrast, contemporary Western "infidels" (deists, and later atheists) are simply people who have appropriated Christian rationality, theology, and values while wanting to evict the Christian god.

But without the belief in an over-arching, rational mind which gave the first scientists the idea that "law" might drive everything, our religious drive causes us to fall away from reason. And we're seeing that increasingly in our "post-Christian" culture today: probably without knowing why, people like Anonymous -- and even many who label themselves "atheist" or "Christian" -- are embracing a theology which says that irrationality is "beyond" rationality, that it is a "higher" belief to believe the ultimate is more like a rock (lacking reason) than like a person (capable of reason).

When the ultimate is impersonal, the impersonal becomes the ultimate.

Posted by: Tim (Random Observations) on October 15, 2006 01:59 PM

KP,

The definition of omnipotent is "One having unlimited power or authority". it doesn't stop at mathematics or any other man-made thing...

Yes, actually it does. When you're debating, say, theists, and they say their god is "omnipotent", you have to ask them what they mean when they use that term. Otherwise, you are not refuting their conception of God when you answer them.

If you don't agree with their use of the word, then go ahead and argue that point (you'll lose, since they originated the term) but don't go pretending only you have the power offer a definition.

And is the definition I've given -- see the expanded citation above -- accurate? Look, see the what online etymology dictionary says:

c.1314, from O.Fr. omnipotent (11c.), from L. omnipotentem (nom. omnipotens) "all-powerful, almighty," from omnis "all" (see omni-) + potens (gen. potentis) "powerful" (see potent). Strictly only of God or a deity; general sense of "having absolute power or authority" is attested from 1598.

The term is a Christian term, meant to the describe the Christian God "having all authority", not as being able self-contradict. It arose in an age and context of medieval monarchy, that's what "authority" and "power" referred to. Ever hear the term "potentiate"? It means ruler.

The biblical God describes himself as the "King of Kings" -- the one who controls all powers which are had -- not an Eastern mystic's wet dream of self-negating nonexistent entities.

Also see the expanded defintion I cited above. You can't "clarify" a short, terse dictionary defintion by re-interpreting it in a way that contradicts its expanded common and historical meaning.

I have zero patience for inept attempts at verbal sophistry. When you think you can win an argument just by redefining words, you waste everyone's time and deceive yourself. You do not "defeat" your opponent -- you simply refuse to engage his actual argument while chanting: "I win! I win!" That's why it's called a "straw man" -- because it deserves all the valor of defeating a scarecrow in a boxing match.


what makes turning four sides into a circle any different from making it possible for a human being to walk on water?

Well, the former is an inherantly incoherant and meaningless question, and the latter simply describes an unusual or improbable event.

Think, man: Didn't you know people could walk on water? It happens all the time. Have you never heard of snow or ice? Yet you can't see the difference between, say, ice, and a self-negating q