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Modern "progressive" belief has a somewhat double-minded approach to sexual malleability. On one hand, we are to believe, apparently, that homosexuality is innate -- surely it rests on some gene somewhere. A gay man, for example, cannot change his orientation. (Never mind those men claiming they have.) On the other hand, we are apparently perfectly fine with the idea of heterosexuals "experimenting" with homosexuality, and even, um, switching preferences. And though we are almost completely convinced that homosexuality is genetic (the only thing lacking is any kind of scientific evidence), we are also absolutely convinced that an aversion to homosexual relations could not be likewise innate. Gays must be blameless for preferring homosexual relations, whereas "homophobes" must be found to be morally reprehensible. In contrast, I believe human sexual preference is generally malleable; it is based on both childhood and adult experience; and that the degree to which it is malleable in a particular individual has a genetic component. For example, I was surprised to discover research that indicated that if a girl's first sexual experience is with a woman, she is many, many times more likely to become a lesbian. There are only two explanations for this, and only the second seems plausable to me: (1) Lesbians can nearly flawlessly predict a young girl's future "orientation", will only approach known future lesbians, or (2) the experience itself changes a girl's orientation. That said, here is an article in the New Zealand Herald which seems to lend credence to my suspicions:
It's not clear if they're talking about "drive" or "experience". My guess is that they are saying that experience changes a woman's attractions, because it is probably rather difficult to measure actual hormone levels via questionaire. (It is possible to have a high sex drive and yet not sleep around much, so the two are probably only somewhat corelated.) This would seem to be yet more evidence against the "10%" myth:
And it also seems to fly in the face of the dogma which says that the percent of homosexuals isn't increasing:
That's not categorical, since it doesn't indicate if there's a shift in the number of women who continue as lesbians, but I find it unlikely that the number of people trying a product wouldn't co-relate somehow with the number of people buying it. Interesting tradition you have going here. You posted this article on February 15th 2006. Last year it was Feb 14th 2005. Is there a reason that you write an article on homosexuality every valentine's day? Posted by: Ryan on March 2, 2006 02:09 PM Good post, btw. Posted by: Ryan on March 2, 2006 10:26 PM On one hand, we are to believe, apparently, that homosexuality is innate The ratio of 2nd to 4th digit length is negatively correlated with exclusive male homosexual behavior (Self described behavior, I assume) http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/query.fcgi?cmd=Retrieve&db=pubmed&dopt=Abstract&list_uids=11053694&query_hl=23&itool=pubmed_docsum There is evidence that the ratio of the length of 2nd and 4th digits (2D:4D) is negatively related to prenatal testosterone and positively to oestrogen. Regarding lesbians, here's one study where bloodwork was done on an extensive number of lesbian and heterosexual women seeking fertility treatment. It has a rather odd result. Lesbians had a far higher incidence of PCOS, a disease which elevates a womans androgenic hormones, than heterosexual women. (Eighty percent of lesbian women, compared with 32% of the heterosexual women, had PCO on pelvic ultrasound examination... lesbian women with PCO and PCOS had significantly higher androgen concentrations compared with heterosexual women with PCO and PCOS.) However there were no significant differences in androgenic levels between hetero and homosexual women without PCOS (at least at baseline. It doesn't say when sexually aroused) http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/query.fcgi?cmd=Retrieve&db=pubmed&dopt=Abstract&list_uids=15533359&query_hl=3&itool=pubmed_docsum While it's hard to do tests on a person while they're engaged in sex, these results may imply that the body of a woman predisposed to lesbianism produces more androgens in response to stimulation (in this case, stimulation via a cyst.) Higher androgens = higher sex drive = more sexual behavior (towards men or women, based on psychological factors and personal choice.) But that's just speculation on my part, and not confirmed. All a person's actions are "choices." A person is still responsible for controlling their own temper, even if that temper has a biological basis. But it does seem that people's sexual orientation does, in fact, have an innate and demonstratable biological component. Posted by: Ryan on March 13, 2006 12:36 PM Interesting tradition you have going here. You posted this article on February 15th 2006. Last year it was Feb 14th 2005. Is there a reason that you write an article on homosexuality every valentine's day? Hmmmmm: (a) It could be that I'm secretly a repressed homosexual. Frankly, that would quite a surprise to my girlfriend. Not to mention myself! (b) I tend to respond to media. Perhaps they tend to publish more articles about homosexuality on Valentines Day? That would be an interesting thesis. (c) Perhaps I've mentioned it enough times in recent years that there was about one every month? Or less, actually, since I've been blogging here 3 years now, and apparently just hit 2/3.
Results: January 13: 314 Intersting: There seems to be a sustained spike of "gay"-related stories coming from the New York Times right around Valentines' Day. Nearly 1,200 hits over two days -- where, the average month seems to have around 750 on those two days. So I decided to carry this one further (I didn't feel like repeating the experiment for each month, forgive me) and see if I could see a sustained spike forming in the days leading up to Valentine's Day: February 1: 583 Overall, February seems to be a rather "gay" month. Perhaps it's just my imagination, but there seems to be a 3-day spike right on the 12th-14th, with the number of stories hovering around 600 for three days. Perhaps this is a co-incidence, or not statistically significant. Or perhaps the NY Times gets interested in this topic around this time of year. Or perhaps various pro- (or even anti-?) gay groups tend to schedule media-attracting events around this period of time. Interesting thesis: wish I had access to Lexis/Nexus. Posted by: Tim (Random Observations) on March 17, 2006 09:14 PM Interesting! Posted by: Ryan on March 23, 2006 06:37 AM Couldn't resist following up on Ryan's comments regarding PCOS and sexuality - or more specifically, sex drive. Ryan wrote: But that's just speculation on my part, and not confirmed." I have PCOS and have had it since pre-puberty (ie. 20 years-ish). In that time I have heard doctors say I should have an increased sex drive and that testosterone has the effect of increasing it. I even heard one female endocrinologist say that she wished she had PCOS. Frankly, it's all incorrect. I'm sure that increased testosterone increases the male sex drive, but the female sex drive is more complex. I heard a Professor from the Jean Hailes Institute (who study PCOS and its effects on women) explain that the female libido relies on emotions and the way we feel about our sexual partner. WRT the emotions, if we are overly conscious about our damaged (and therefore sexually unattractive) body then our libido will be low. If we are not feeling a whole lot of love towards our partner, our libido will suffer. Also, deficient progesterone reduces the female libido. Sure, testosterone has an effect on the female libido, but it's not much of an effect. It's no female viagra! Posted by: Anna on December 2, 2007 06:25 AM Add your two cents...
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I agree with almost all of what you're saying here.
because it is probably rather difficult to measure actual hormone levels via questionaire.
I don't know about all sex hormones, but testosterone can be reliably tested via a spit test.
we are also absolutely convinced that an aversion to homosexual relations could not be likewise innate. Gays must be blameless for preferring homosexual relations, whereas "homophobes" must be found to be morally reprehensible.
IIRC The term "homophobe" originally came from a study showing that men who demonstrated a sexual response to gay porn but did not self-identify as 'gay' were dramatically more likely to have violent anti-gay feelings. Applying the term to those people who are not suppressing strong feelings of homoeroticism is a very common and essentially unfair broadening of the term.
I was surprised to discover research that indicated that if a girl's first sexual experience is with a woman, she is many, many times more likely to become a lesbian. There are only two explanations for this, and only the second seems plausable to me: (1) Lesbians can nearly flawlessly predict a young girl's future "orientation", will only approach known future lesbians, or (2) the experience itself changes a girl's orientation.
Were you really surprised? While I generally agree with what you're saying in the OP, isn't your assumption in writing this dichotomy that lesbians are essentially forcing themselves upon young girls, and the girl's choice has no bearing on the matter? Nature or nurture aside for a second, if a person (the young lesbian) makes a very non-standard choice when they're young then they're more likely to make that same non-standard choice when they're older.
Perhaps it would make things clearer, when discussing this issue, to differentiate "sexual identity" from sexual arousal? In which cases do the people who change the first change the second?
Posted by: Ryan on March 2, 2006 01:59 PM