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Higher Criticism of Pooh

At one point in my life, I became convinced that much of what passes for the discipline of "theology" was, in fact, a way of installing extremely complicated errors into peoples' brains. It seemed many theologians got so caught up in their particular model that they'd forget it was supposed to map to reality, or at least logic, much less common sense.

For example, one of my favorite (in an ironic sense) theological tactics is when I find someone who has made the bible "prove" this or that idea by selectively calling some verses "authentic" and dismissing others (which don't support their POV) as later redactions, interpolations, or fabrications perpetrated by (of course) theologically orthodox Christians. The Jesus Seminar, for example.

A very sophisticated form of circular argument, since the filter for incoming evidence is actually the assumption allegedly being "proved". This is like a blinking light on their forehead, warning us: "I'M IRRATIONAL! I'M ILLOGICAL!"

But enough blather from me. Instead, I present one of my favorite antidotes to that kind of silliness New Directions in Pooh Studies, in which we examine the Winnie-the-Pooh books using the same "deconstruction" that lit-crit types apply to classic literature or the bible.

And arrive at all sorts of absurd conclusions.

Composite authorship is clearly indicated by a number of linguistic peculiarities and literary unevennesses./2/ We observe the oscillation between various names for Pooh, an unerring pointer to diversity of authorship. He is called within the space of half a page (W 3.31)/3/:

Pooh Pooh
Winnie-the-Pooh Winnie-the-Pooh
Winnie-the-Pooh Bear

--a plain indication of the interweaving of a number of sources. Other names by which he is called in the P-corpus include:

Edward Bear (W 2.19)
Winnie-ther-Pooh (W 18)
Pooh-Bear (W 6.65)
P. Bear (W 9.132)
Sir Pooh de Bear (H 10.173)

There is also a tradition that he lived under the name of Sanders (W 1.2), which appears only once in our present texts, since for some reason now forgotten, Sanders traditions have been rigorously expunged from the corpus.

Heheh!

I also love this bit:

Is he a dying and rising God? It seems so, though we have only the barest hints. At the end of H, Christopher Robin is 'going away', a euphemism, we may believe, for the annual death of the vegetation...

At least it's funny. I know people who spew this blather and actually believe it.

Tut-tut and cheerio!

(And avoid the hefalumps and woozles!)

Comments

Hi Tim

Just out of curiousity, in another post you opined that the gnostic way of thinking was "literalist" and that you saw "no evidence" that the ancient gnostics "thought in" or interpreted their texts in the allegorical, symbolic and esoteric way evinced in (for example) the Kaulajnananirnaya Tantra.

Since the gnostic texts are (in your view) meant to be interpreted literally, their "intricate detail" stands (in your view) as evidence of nothing more than "obscure, spiritualistic... mumbo-jumbo" admired only by the "illiterate, stupid, and intellectually dishonest."

So hey, I like to think of myself as an intellectually honest guy, and I really am eager to get your reaction here.

I posted a rather lengthy excerpt from Hippolyutus in which that ancient author explains Simon Magus' hermeneutic in great detail - apparently Simon Magus taught that Eden was the Womb, that the four rivers which flow from Eden may be understood as the senses of the fetus in gestation (excepting sight), that various books from the OT are allegorical accounts of the development of these senses, etc.

Intricate details of "the air-ducts, which we said were channels for breath, embracing the bladder on either side in the region of the pelvis, are united at the great duct which is called the dorsal aorta" figure in Simon Magus' interpretation of Genesis, for example.

I also posted a rather lenghty description of some of the interpretive schemes advanced by a gnostic sect called the Peretae, who discuss in some detail the anatomy of the brain, identifying the "Father" with the cerbellum, the pineal gland with the "Son," etc.

So, from my POV, discussions of the spinal marrow, cerebellum, pineal gland, stages of gestation, etc, are not really "mumbo-jumbo" - they actually betray a sophisticated understanding of human anatomy, at least for that time, two millenia ago.

It also seems to me that if an author provides a key to interpreting a certain text as an allegory for certain physiological and/or neurological processes, then that author's understanding of these texts is not actually "literalist", despite the claims of uninformed modern readers.

So, while I don't expect to change your taste in literature, I do wonder if I couldn't persuade you to admit that allegories aren't meant to be read literally, but instead contain culture-bound symbol sets which require an interpretive key of some sort.

Whaddya say?

Posted by: Rev Max on October 26, 2006 02:01 PM

Hiya "Rev Max",

Whaddya say? First I'd say: "Sorry for being absent lately!" -- I've had company in town over the weekend, so I wasn't able to blog during my normal weekly time for it.

Next, in response to various things you have written...


Just out of curiousity, in another post you opined that the gnostic way of thinking was "literalist"...

It's hard for me to defend positions I haven't taken, and words I haven't used. (Even if they're put into quotes.)

I've never characterized ancient Gnostic thinking as being strictly "literalist"; I simply believe that when, for example, the writer of Gospel of Judas depicts Jesus as a super-being because he actually believed Jesus was a super-being. And indeed, that seems to jive with what many say the authors probably believed theologically.

This doesn't preclude any allegorical elements (of course not), but nor does it lead to the kind of en masse dismissal some modern Gnostics would apparently prefer.

Answered another way: Do I believe the authors who put certain words in to Jesus' or the disciples' mouths believed they actually said those things? On some level, no, they had to have known they were writing new material, and that they weren't, for example, Peter.

But were they putting their assertions into famous mouths to add credibility to those beliefs when others read the documents? In many cases, it would certainly seem so.

For example, the author of The Gospel According to Mary seems to anticipate and refute this kind of objection by essentially having Levi say, essentially: "Well, Jesus found Mary worthy, so who are we to question this apparently strange new revelation? Nor can we possibly change what the Savior said."

The author knows full well the reader will find this strange. And to head it off, he invokes the credibility of the disciple in question.

Again, these ideas could have been communicated in many ways. Plato, for example, told a clear analogy, about strangers in a cave. The disciples are used to borrow their credibility, as the example I cited just does.


... and that you saw "no evidence" that the ancient gnostics "thought in" or interpreted their texts in the allegorical, symbolic and esoteric way... I posted a rather lengthy excerpt from Hippolyutus...

I'll gladly stipulate that there are allegorical elements within ancient Gnostic texts, just as Plato's The Allegory of the Cave was one long allegory. (And I'll gladly comment on the specific excerpt you posted (thank you!) when I get to that comment...)

Since you have raised the charge of "literalism": What does "literalism" (a term I haven't even used!) mean?

I see people accusing some Christians of being "hard-assed literalists". But surely such people must understand that "hard-assed literalists" read documents which they know to contain poetry, parables, visions, and symbols. So if the term "literalist" is being applied to Christians who use analogy rather extensively, I don't understand why we would suddenly start understanding it as precluding all analogies.

Again, I think we're just disputing a matter of degree, not whether analogy is used, ever, at all.

Specificly, I deny that Gnostics only invoked the disciples as a kind of analogy, as Jordan implied. I also don't believe that statements of Gnostic beliefs (firmaments, aeons, Errors, etc.) were all simply analogies. I've said these things repeatedly.

If you'd like to give evidence for that, I'd be more than glad to examine it. But it just won't due to impart some straw man argument to me, saying I'm claiming ancient Gnostics were more "literalist" than most people would believe modern Christians were.


Since the gnostic texts are (in your view) meant to be interpreted literally, their "intricate detail" stands (in your view) as evidence of nothing more than "obscure, spiritualistic... mumbo-jumbo" admired only by the "illiterate, stupid, and intellectually dishonest."

So hey, I like to think of myself as an intellectually honest guy, and I really am eager to get your reaction here.

You seem to be misrepresenting my statement again here. Perhaps I just didn't communicate clearly enough.

I never said Gnostic gospels were admired only by the "illiterate, stupid, and intellectually dishonest." My quote was specifically about the Gospel of Judas, and I applied such criticism only to its "promoters":

THIS [the Gospel of Judas] is going to overturn Christianity? Or at least our understanding of Judas?

No, this is pathetic! What it reveals is how illiterate, stupid, and intellectually dishonest its promoters have been.

In case you weren't aware of the backstory (and more here), the Gospel of Judas was promoted by a number of people in the popular press -- and specifically at the National Geographic Society, as (a) telling us about the real, historical person of Judas, and asserting (b) it would overturn our understanding of traditional Christianity.

I was, and am, disgusted that we were being repeatedly told such things about said document, and that those who had access to it so shamefully misrepresented its content before we were able to finally read it ourselves. (Hence the title: "Reading the Text.")

Hence I referred to "its promoters" -- not "every human being who finds some value in it."


So, while I don't expect to change your taste in literature, I do wonder if I couldn't persuade you to admit that allegories aren't meant to be read literally, but instead contain culture-bound symbol sets which require an interpretive key of some sort.

Whaddya say?

I'd say you just made a straw man argument, as I've never claimed "allegories aren't meant to be read literally." I've (again) re-posted my specific claims above, if you'd like to respond to them.

Thanks!

Posted by: Tim (Random Observations) on November 2, 2006 08:49 AM

Hi intellectually honest Tim,

Mea Culpa! You did not actually characterize the gnostic text as "literalist” instead you spoke of their “literalism.” But I still thinking we have an interesting POV difference here which is worth flushing out.

So, here’s what happened (http://tim.2wgroup.com/blog/archives/001204.html):

1. I compared the NH scriptures to the tantras, texts which “employ a type of language which can be taken on many levels....” and “have meanings which can be taken at face value but do not always have this meaning, thus making them difficult to understand to the literally-minded."

2. You responded thusly: “I'm aware that's certainly how modern gnostics wish for us to think about the original ones… But I see no evidence that the original gnostics actually thought that way."

You admit that the "tantric Hindus and Buddhists sometimes didn't write down their actual ceremonies…" but claim that you "see no evidence that this was the case for ancient Gnostics. Rather, the precise, intricate detail and literalism (totally missing from the aforementioned tantric texts) seems to argue against it in most cases."

Anyway, FWIW, thats why I posted the lengthy allegorical accounts of neurological and physiological processes and anamtomy from Marcion, the Peretae at all - I wanted to provide you with "evidence that the original gnostics actually thought that way."

So, we return to the question at hand. You assert that the "precise, intricate detail and literalism" of the Gnostic texts argues against the notion the passage from G of J discussing the 12 luminaries and 72 heavens “Actually means something else”

Now, if you hold the view that this could not possibly be an allegory, and “see no evidence that the original gnostics actually thought that way” (i.e., allegorically and/or symbolically) then of course the “intricate detail” would seem bizarre. This was my original point.

Could it be that you might not have the right interpretive key to make sense of this passage though?

I don’t give a fig for the zodiac myself but if I assume that :

a.the “math” in the G of J was there for some reason, i.e., not just numbers for the sake of nonsense

b. the G of J fits within the general gnostic pattern of enthusiasm for Babylonian and Chaldean astrological concepts

then with the aid of google I can find a plausible interpretation for this passage in about 10 seconds:

“The zodiac was not only used to track the 365-day year, but also the 25,920-year 'Great' or 'Platonic' Year, known as the Precession of the Equinoxes. The Great Year, like the Earth year, was divided into 12 'months' - twelve 2160-year astrological ages. (2160 is the diameter of the moon in miles). The astrological "age" is also refered to as an 'aeon'.”

“Some of the mechanics of the zodiac are describe fairly well on Wikipedia: 'The ecliptic is the apparent path of the Sun traced out along the sky in the course of the year. More accurately, it is the intersection of the celestial sphere with the ecliptic plane, which is the geometric plane containing the mean orbit of the Earth around the Sun. ...there are 12 zodiacal constellations, all taking an equal share of the ecliptic. The entire ecliptic is measured as a 360 degree circle or 360 degrees of celestial longitude.[4] Each sign, therefore is comprised of 30 degrees of celestial longitude. Each degrees of the precession is equal to 72 Earth years, and each year is equal to 50 seconds of degrees of arc of celestial longitude'. One must remember that in the 24 hours of the Earth's day, the Earth travels or rotates the entire 360 degrees of the ecliptic, passing through all 12 signs. These numbers figure prominently into Jesus's message in quite a few places in the Gospel of Judas.”

“Heaven… becomes equated with the circle's number '360'. In that 'code' 6 heavens would be 6 x 360 = 2160. So when Jesus writes that there are '6 heavens for each aeon', one can see by a quick multiplication of 6 x 360 = 2160, and his reference to 'the twelve Aeons' that he is PROBABLY referring to the twelve 2160-year Astrological Ages which comprise the Precession of the Equinox.”

“Given that each degree of the Precession is 72 years and each year is one 360 degree cycle or 'heaven' (360 degrees x 72 years = 25,920 years), we can see that '72 heavens for the 72 luminaries' can also be interpreted as a description of the mechanics of the precessional movement.”

“The reference to the '5 firmaments' of each of the '72 heavens' (360 degree cycles) is a bit less enigmatic when one remembers that 360 divided by 5 is 72.”

Now is this important info to you or to me?

Perhaps not - I'm no great enthusiast for astrology either.

However, we aren't talking about what we believe but about the possibility that certain concepts might be encoded in this text.

That said, it seems MUCH more likely to me that "72," "12" "6" "5" etc were discussed in the context of the "heavens" and the "firmament" and in this precise relation to each other, in the G of J, BECAUSE this part of the text functions as a symbolic acct of the motion of the stars and the passage of time, than simply to imagine that these exact numbers were used for no reason at all, as deliberately absurd nonsense, and just happened to be identical with the math employed by ancient astronomists.

Posted by: Rev Max on November 2, 2006 05:11 PM

Hiya Max!

Mea Culpa! You did not actually characterize the gnostic text as "literalist” instead you spoke of their “literalism.”

Yes, I did use that word, once. I'm not trying to be obnoxious, but I post on many different threads in any given week (and sometimes over multiple weeks, as in this case), and I don't always remember exactly what word I've used where, or where you may have gotten an impression. Thanks for clearing that up!

Yes, I did indeed assert that many Gnostic texts appear to contain "precise, intricate detail and literalism." I stand by that characterization.

To quote the old example again:

He made seventy-two luminaries appear in the incorruptible generation, in accordance with the will of the Spirit. The seventy-two luminaries themselves made three hundred sixty luminaries appear in the incorruptible generation, in accordance with the will of the Spirit, that their number should be five for each...

Again, if this is confusing, I'm not here saying no analogies can possibly exist, anywhere, ever. Indeed, you just quoted me as saying I felt this was true in "most cases" -- certainly not all.

I'm simply saying that where an author starts numbering luminaries and firmaments, and doing math, he's probably saying something more than: "Love is good."


Anyway, FWIW, thats why I posted the lengthy allegorical accounts of neurological and physiological processes and anamtomy from Marcion, the Peretae at all - I wanted to provide you with "evidence that the original gnostics actually thought that way."

I can now see, given just that sentence, where you might have gotten that impression. So I owe you an apology for being unclear there.

I should have been more precise, since I was referring to the quoted passages (which I believed Jordan had been, also), not saying there was a completely absence of analogy present in all gnostic texts.

Indeed, in the next paragraph I had written:

I can believe, for example, that a reference to a "vase" in a Kalachakra Tantric ceremony might indeed represent "vulva." Of course. But on that basis, I see no reason to believe, for example, that this...

"The twelve aeons of the twelve luminaries constitute their father, with six heavens for each aeon, so that there are seventy-two heavens for the seventy-two luminaries..."

Actually means something else...

As a clarifying example.

So I hoped it was clear I was simply referring to the thought process which produced these particular types of statements (which is what Jordan seemed to be responding to), not making a blanket statement, as my careless sentence, read on its own, apparently led you to believe.

Again, apologies for any confusion.


Now, if you hold the view that this could not possibly be an allegory...

Again, I haven't said "this could not possibly be an allegory." As you keep quoting (and ignoring?) I simply asked you to produce some sort of evidence for the position that this must have been allegorical, or was best understood that way.


So, in response, you quote a lengthy explanation which culminates in this summary:

“Given that each degree of the Precession is 72 years and each year is one 360 degree cycle or 'heaven' (360 degrees x 72 years = 25,920 years), we can see that '72 heavens for the 72 luminaries' can also be interpreted as a description of the mechanics of the precessional movement.”

Umm, Max? You're making my case for me here. (Rather nicely.) If this is truly "a description of the mechanics of processional movement" then you are arguing it is a very precise, literal description of a real thing. Not a metaphor, not a similie, not a type, and not an analogy.

If the explanation you have supplied is true (and note the terms supplied are all the normal mundane meanings, not types), this is no more a metaphor than if I said: "There are 365 days in a year." Or even if I wrote it more obscurely: "365 terrestrial cyclations transpire in each incorruptable orbital annuum."

Posted by: Tim (Random Observations) on November 2, 2006 11:48 PM

Greetings again, Max!

[Various comments] Made me think that you might be looking at this text in the wrong terms.

Ah. I see. We have a miscommunication, it seems.

You seem to have thought that I had a definite meaning for the text in mind already. No: not at all. But I felt quite certain it wasn't meant as a metaphor.

The reason is simple: Metaphors typically use familliar terms to represent hidden or more complex concepts. Present me a passage about grain and the harvest or flowers in a vase, tell me there's a hidden meaning and I might buy that.

But this kind of stuff? Many Gnostic "gospels" go on and on about already-obscure, religio-technical sounding terms. A person doing that is no more making an analogy than a businessman who revels in buzzwords: "My strategem for generating cross-functional, horizontally-dyamic synergy involves deploying human capital in a forward-looking organizational paradigm across all strategic business sectors."

You don't have to have a definite understanding of what he means by each phrase to understand he's not making an analogy.


Obviously the idea of 72 heavens doesn't make sense if we think of a heaven as a mythological afterlife like Valhalla or the Happy Hunting Grounds.

(1) I chose those terms simply because Jesus (who I chose for contrast) often spoke of heaven and good deeds, and thus I needed to make a contrast by explaining how he might have spoken about those topics (for example) in more precise detail.

Not, as you seem to have inferred (my bad!) because I was sure the author of GoJ was referring to an afterlife and good deeds -- but simply to make my contrast, I had to choose a topic Jesus actually did speak about, and point out he didn't put it in more technical, detailed terms. (He communicated the main point in a rather simple fashion. Hence my comments about comparative obscuritanism.)

(2) I don't at all think its absurd to believe there are many heavens, given some cultural background. For ages, many people -- many of who were probably no less intelligent than you or I -- believed there were different kinds or levels of heaven. Not just in Western traditions, but also in the East.

These ideas weren't separate from astrology as you might think. "Firmament" referred to the hard shell surrounding the world, and many people (probably including Gnostics) believed that stars were related to or were spirits or Gods of some sort. So there's no dichotomy of the sort you seem to be implying: astrology and religion were one and the same in many cases.


But if we assume there is some reason for that math, then we have a different way to look at it. And in this case, encoded information about astrology really does seem a better fit.

Yes, except the word "encoded" doesn't fit here. A "firmament" isn't "code" for a hard, heavenly layer. In the author's mind, its simply the word for it. Aeon, if the explanation you have produced is accurate, didn't "encode" the concept of "age" -- it simply was the word for it. As it is even now:

Main Entry: ae·on
Variant(s): or eon /'E-&n, 'E-"än/
Function: noun
Etymology: Latin, from Greek aiOn -- more at AYE
1 : an immeasurably or indefinitely long period of time : AGE
2 a usually eon : a very large division of geologic time usually longer than an era b : a unit of geologic time equal to one billion years

"Aeon" isn't "code" for "age" any more than "plantain" is "code" for "primitive banana."

If the interpretation you have provided is accurate, there's nothing metaphorical about this text, Max.

That said, I hope I haven't discouraged you from attacking or dialoging with me on other grounds. Anything you'd like, really: this has been very interesting.

And, again, I want to apologize to you if I didn't communicate clearly enough.

Posted by: Tim (Random Observations) on November 3, 2006 11:08 AM

I think it's interesting that we've gotten this deep into a discussion on math, Gnosticism and Christianity and noone's brought up the cult of Pythagorus which was obsessed with math or the Vesica Pisces. Particularly since the latter is considered to be a gnostic reference in the canonical gospels.


And in this case, encoded information about astrology really does seem a better fit.

I can buy that the passage (taken as a whole) might have been speaking cryptically about astrological phenomenon, and using Christian figures as a kind of 'attention getter' either fairly or unfairly. Could you comment a bit about to what ends such knowledge would be put? Was it supposed to be used practically, or was it considered an end unto itself? Was pure mathematics considered to be a window to an understanding of the thinking of a higher God?

What did early Gnostics think that the stars were? Were they good or evil? I know some in the ancient world believed that astronomical bodies were perfect and the earth was imperfect. The discovery of sunspots was somewhat heretical for that reason. Did some gnostics share that belief in the perfection of heavenly bodies?

If so, that might explain some of the obsession with math and astrology.

Posted by: Ryan on November 3, 2006 03:19 PM

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